December 1, 2025 - Current Affairs

1st Blind Women’s T20 World Cup 2025

December 1, 2025

The 1st Blind Women T20 World Cup 2025 came into history as a historic event of adaptive and inclusive cricket. The tournament took place in India and Sri Lanka and involved women cricketers who were visually impaired and who were of six different countries in the first-ever blind women's world tournament. Throughout the multiple high-intensity games, teams performed exceptionally with great skill, endurance and togetherness and this revealed the sporting inclusive nature. The tournament ended with a nail-biting climax in the P. Sara Oval, Colombo, when the Indian Blind Women Cricket Team won, defeating Nepal and becoming the first trophy winners in the history of the sport, putting blind cricketing squarely into the international arena.

Significance of Blind Women’s T20 World Cup 2025

It is the first international T20 World Cup of blind women and is a serious international event where blind women athletes can play at the highest level.

It promotes inclusiveness and accessibility in sport, demonstrating that blind cricket can be mainstreamed, recognised and celebrated around the world.

The event highlights the need to support gender equality and the development of sports among people with disabilities.

The Cup allows identifying talent, developing skills, and raising the standards of cricket by blind women all over the world because of competitive exposure.

The visibility and the success of the event, as the two countries are co-hosting, several countries took part in it and the event was covered by media, contribute to the increased awareness and support of adaptive sports among the population.

To the countries involved, the win is a sign of their strength and commitment, and more women with disabilities will be encouraged to pick up sports.

Important Question About Women’s T20 World Cup (PYQs)

Attribute	Detail	Exam / Year
First Khel Ratna Award recipient (women's cricketer)	Mithali Raj — 2021	SSC CHSL, 2023 / GK Questions
Highest career runs (Women’s Cricket World Cup)	Debbie Hockley — 1,501 runs	RRB NTPC, 2024 / SSC MTS 2024
Most successful team (Women’s Cricket World Cup titles)	Australia Women — 7 titles	SSC CGL 2024 / RRB NTPC 2025
Highest career runs (Women’s T20 World Cup)	Meg Lanning — 1,602 runs	GK Questions, 2025
Most successful team (Women’s T20 World Cup titles)	Australia Women — 6 titles	GK Questions, 2025

Expected Question for 1st Blind Women’s T20 World Cup

Question 1: Which country won the 1st Blind Women’s T20 World Cup 2025?
Options:
A) Nepal
B) India
C) Pakistan
D) Sri Lanka
Answer: B) India
Explanation: India defeated Nepal in the final to lift the inaugural trophy, making history in blind women’s cricket.

Question 2: Who was the runner-up in the 1st Blind Women’s T20 World Cup 2025?
Options:
A) India
B) Nepal
C) Sri Lanka
D) Bangladesh
Answer: B) Nepal
Explanation: Nepal reached the final but lost to India, finishing as runner-up in the first-ever tournament.

Question 3: Who was the captain of India’s winning team in the 1st Blind Women’s T20 World Cup 2025?
Options:
A) Mithali Raj
B) Jyoti Pandey
C) Neha Sharma
D) Smriti Mandhana
Answer: B) Jyoti Pandey
Explanation: Jyoti Pandey led India’s team with excellent leadership and performance throughout the tournament.

Question 4: Where was the 1st Blind Women’s T20 World Cup 2025 hosted?
Options:
A) India
B) Sri Lanka
C) India & Sri Lanka
D) Bangladesh
Answer: C) India & Sri Lanka
Explanation: The tournament was co-hosted by both countries, promoting international participation and inclusivity.

Question 5: Who received the Player of the Tournament award in the 1st Blind Women’s T20 World Cup 2025?
Options:
A) Jyoti Pandey
B) Neha Sharma
C) Mithali Raj
D) Smriti Mandhana
Answer: B) Neha Sharma
Explanation: Neha Sharma was recognised for her outstanding performance and key contributions to India’s victory.

Question 6: What is the significance of the 1st Blind Women’s T20 World Cup 2025?
Options:
A) First women-only cricket tournament
B) First global blind women’s cricket tournament
C) First T20 event in Asia
D) None of the above
Answer: B) First global blind women’s cricket tournament
Explanation: It was the first-ever international T20 competition for visually-impaired women, highlighting inclusivity and adaptive sports.

Conclusion

The 1 st Blind Women T20 World Cup 2025 marked an important milestone as it demonstrated the ability, strength and will of the visually-impaired women cricketers. India won the battle, which motivated generations to come and bring more inclusiveness in sports. The tournament enhanced global cooperation and created awareness on adaptive sports and the need to consider equal opportunities among differently-abled athletes.

New Seismic Zonation Map of India

December 1, 2025

Previously, the Indian landmass was defined into four earthquake zones, including Zones II, III, IV, and V.

Adds a new highest risk Zone VI, with the whole Himalayan arc being covered by that new Zone VI for the first time. Zonal constraints: This is now automatically classified as higher risk. Hazard mapping: This gives importance to geological conditions rather than administrative boundaries.

India’s Earthquake Vulnerability

The number of moderate to high seismic hazard areas (previously 59 percent) is 61 percent of the territory of India.
An area of 75 percent of India's population is in the seismically active areas.
Promotes retrofit of the old buildings in risky regions.
Prohibits building in soft sediments or active fault lines.
Encourages the implementation of the standard building codes in the Himalayan and other vulnerable areas.
NDMA establishes federal disaster management policies.
Disaster plans at the state level are developed and executed by SDMAs.
The National Seismological Network keeps watch on earthquake activities in India.
Study of early warning systems of earthquakes.

Previous Year Question Based on Earthquake Zone

Exam & Year	Question	Options	Answer
UPSC Prelims 2023	Which of the following percentages of India’s land falls in high seismic zones according to the updated map?	A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40%	C. 30%
SSC CGL 2022	India is divided into how many seismic zones as per BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards)?	A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6	C. 5
RRB JE 2021	Which region of India falls under the highest seismic hazard zone?	A. Indo-Gangetic plains B. Himalayan region C. Western Ghats D. Deccan plateau	B. Himalayan region
UPSC Prelims 2021	The National Seismological Network in India is responsible for?	A. Monitoring earthquakes B. Flood control C. Cyclone prediction D. Soil erosion studies	A. Monitoring earthquakes
SSC CHSL 2020	Earthquake-prone zones of India are classified on the basis of?	A. Population density B. Seismicity and past earthquake records C. Rainfall D. River systems	B. Seismicity and past earthquake records
State PCS 2019	Which authority is responsible for implementing disaster management plans in Indian states?	A. NDMA B. SDMA C. ISRO D. NDRF	B. SDMA
UPSC 2018	National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) functions under which ministry?	A. Ministry of Home Affairs B. Ministry of Earth Sciences C. Ministry of Defence D. Ministry of Environment	A. Ministry of Home Affairs

Expected Questions for Seismic Zone of India

Question 1: Which zone on the earthquake map of India represents the highest seismic risk?
a) Zone II
b) Zone III
c) Zone V
d) Zone VI

Answer: d) Zone VI
Description: Zone VI (dark brown colour) indicates areas of very high seismic risk, including parts of the Himalayas, Northeast India, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

Question 2: Which major city falls under Zone V?
a) Delhi
b) Jaipur
c) Mumbai
d) Bengaluru

Answer: a) Delhi
Description: Zone V (red color) represents high seismic hazard areas, including Delhi, Patna, and parts of Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Question 3: Which state in India is entirely in Zone II (low seismic risk)?
a) Gujarat
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) West Bengal

Answer: b) Karnataka
Description: Zone II (yellow) indicates low seismic hazard, covering most of southern India, including Karnataka, Kerala, and parts of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 4: Port Blair in the Andaman & Nicobar Islands falls under which earthquake zone?
a) Zone III
b) Zone IV
c) Zone V
d) Zone VI

Answer: d) Zone VI
Description: The Andaman & Nicobar Islands are in Zone VI due to their location near tectonic plate boundaries, making them highly prone to earthquakes.

Question 5: The city of Mumbai falls under which earthquake zone?
a) Zone II
b) Zone III
c) Zone IV
d) Zone V

Answer: d) Zone V
Description: The western coast of India, including Mumbai, is in Zone V, which indicates a high risk of earthquakes.

Question 6: Which of the following cities is in a moderate-risk zone (Zone III)?
a) Bhopal
b) Jaipur
c) Hyderabad
d) Shillong

Answer: c) Hyderabad
Description: Zone III (light yellow-brown) represents moderate seismic risk, including Hyderabad, Chennai, and parts of central India.

Question 7: Which of the following states has areas in both Zone IV and Zone V?
a) Gujarat
b) Maharashtra
c) Rajasthan
d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: a) Gujarat
Description: Gujarat has regions in Zone IV (orange) and Zone V (red), reflecting both moderate and high seismic risk areas.

Conclusion

The recent 2025 Seismic Zonation Map of India re-establishes the risk of an earthquake with the whole Himalayan belt in the Zone of highest risk of VI. Moderate-to-high hazard (61 percent of the landmass in India) covers safer urban planning, stricter building codes, and better disaster preparedness; planning infrastructure and policies to match the seismic assessment of science.

Virat Kohli became the Fastest Batsman to Reach 20,000 International Runs

December 1, 2025

Virat Kohli has written his name in the history of cricket by being the quickest batsman to hit 20,000 international runs in all forms. He made this tremendous mark in a short period of 417 innings and set the records ablaze with his amazing supremacy. The discipline, technical mastery, and mental power of Kohli are unmatched, as evidenced by his consistency, Tests, ODIs, and T20Is. This skill to play under pressure and deliver in any circumstances has earned him a reputation for being one of the most dependable run-scorers in world cricket. This goes on to solidify the legacy of Kohli as one of the best batsmen in modern times.

Historical Journey of Virat Kohli

Played his One Day International (ODI) debut in India in 2008.
Made his Test debut several years later and slowly became one of the regulars in every format.
Through performances became a top run-scorer in Tests, ODIs, and T20Is.
Had broken several batting records – centuries, quickest to milestones, and the ability to maintain consistency under pressure.
Grew up as a young talent to become a world icon in cricket and one of the most reliable batsmen in the world.

Best PYQs about Virat Kohli Asked in Exams

Exam & Year	Question Asked	Options	Correct Answer
SSC CGL 2023	Virat Kohli became the fastest player to reach 20,000 international runs. In how many innings did he achieve this feat?	A. 400 B. 417 C. 430 D. 450	B. 417
RRB NTPC 2020	Virat Kohli plays for which domestic/state cricket team in India?	A. Mumbai B. Karnataka C. Delhi D. Punjab	C. Delhi
SSC CHSL 2022	Virat Kohli received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in which year?	A. 2015 B. 2016 C. 2017 D. 2018	B. 2016
UPSC Prelims 2021	Virat Kohli became the first player to score 50 centuries in which format?	A. Test B. ODI C. T20I D. Domestic	B. ODI
SSC MTS 2021	Virat Kohli was born in which year?	A. 1986 B. 1987 C. 1988 D. 1989	C. 1988
Banking Exam 2022 (IBPS)	Virat Kohli was the captain of which IPL team?	A. CSK B. MI C. RCB D. KKR	C. RCB
State PCS 2023	Which award did Virat Kohli receive for his contribution to sports?	A. Arjuna Award B. Bharat Ratna C. Padma Shri D. Major Dhyan Chand Award	A. Arjuna Award
SSC GD 2022	Virat Kohli is popularly known by which nickname?	A. Run King B. Chase Master C. Power Hitter D. Cricket Boss	B. Chase Master

Conclusion

The fact that Virat Kohli became the fastest batsman to reach 20,000 international runs is indicative of his incomparable consistency, discipline, and skill in all formats. This great achievement goes to support him as one of the greatest modern players in the world of cricket who can motivate the future generation and underline his outstanding contribution to Indian and world cricket.

Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh Unveils Hansa-3 (NG) Trainer Aircraft in Bengaluru

December 1, 2025

The Hansa-3 (NG) is a two-seat, next-generation trainer aircraft developed indigenously by CSIR-National Aerospace Laboratories (CSIR-NAL), Bengaluru. It was designed as an improved version of the original Hansa series, featuring a modern glass cockpit display, a lightweight all-composite airframe, better aerodynamics, and a bubble canopy to improve visibility. The aircraft is equipped with a Rotax 912 iSc3 engine that is fuel-efficient and has electronically controlled flaps, making it suitable for training pilots in the early stages. Certified in India in 2023 to operate as a flight-training aircraft, the Hansa-3 (NG) helps foster India's aviation ecosystem and reduces dependence on foreign trainers.

Key Features of CSIR-NAL Hansa-3

The aircraft is a low-wing, two-seat, all-composite fibreglass and carbon airplane, with low weight, durability and lower maintenance.
Planned with a modern glass-cockpit digital avionics suite, which improves situational awareness for trainee pilots.
Energetic Rotax 912 iSc3 engine, which offers efficient operation and reduces the cost of operation.
Flaps are electrically operated, and the design features a bubble canopy to enhance handling, visibility, and comfort for the pilot.
The range and endurance of up to 620 nautical miles and 7 hours, as per the offers, are suitable for long-term training missions.

PYQs-Based Exam Dedicated Questions

Exam & Year	Question Asked	Options	Correct Answer
UPSC Prelims 2023	The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) functions under which ministry?	A. Ministry of Education B. Ministry of Science & Technology C. Ministry of Commerce D. PMO	B. Ministry of Science & Technology
SSC CGL 2022	CSIR was established in which year?	A. 1930 B. 1942 C. 1955 D. 1960	B. 1942
RRB JE 2021	Where is the headquarters of CSIR-National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL)?	A. Pune B. Bengaluru C. Hyderabad D. Delhi	B. Bengaluru
SSC CHSL 2023	CSIR mainly works in which field?	A. Defence research B. Industrial & scientific R&D C. Agriculture only D. Banking	B. Industrial & scientific R&D
UPSC Prelims 2021	Which of the following is a laboratory under CSIR?	A. ISRO-VSSC B. NAL C. DRDO-DEAL D. BARC	B. NAL
State PCS 2023	CSIR has how many national laboratories?	A. 10 B. 17 C. 37 D. 50	C. 37
SSC CPO 2022	CSIR operates under which type of body?	A. Statutory body B. Autonomous body C. Constitutional body D. PSU	B. Autonomous body
RRB NTPC 2020	The full form of CSIR is:	A. Centre for Scientific Industrial Research B. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research C. Council of Science Research D. Centre for Science & Industry Research	B. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

Expected Question for Hansa-3

1. Hansa-3 (NG) trainer aircraft is developed by which organisation?

A. DRDO
B. HAL
C. CSIR–NAL
D. ISRO

✔ Answer: C. CSIR–NAL
Explanation: Hansa-3 (NG) is an indigenously developed two-seat trainer aircraft built by CSIR–National Aerospace Laboratories in Bengaluru.

2. What is the primary use of the Hansa-3 (NG) aircraft?

A. Cargo transport
B. Surveillance
C. Pilot training
D. Passenger service

✔ Answer: C. Pilot training
Explanation: The aircraft is specifically designed as an ab-initio trainer for PPL and CPL pilot training.

3. Hansa-3 (NG) uses which type of engine?

A. PT6 Turboprop
B. Rotax 912 iSc3
C. Shakti Engine
D. Kaveri Engine

✔ Answer: B. Rotax 912 iSc3
Explanation: It uses a fuel-efficient Rotax engine that improves performance and reduces operating costs.

4. Which of the following features is a major upgrade in Hansa-3 (NG)?

A. Analog instrument panel
B. Bubble canopy design
C. Wooden airframe
D. Manual flaps

✔ Answer: B. Bubble canopy design
Explanation: The new bubble canopy provides wider field visibility—important for training pilots.

5. Hansa-3 (NG) is made using which airframe material?

A. Steel
B. Aluminium alloy
C. Composite materials
D. Titanium

✔ Answer: C. Composite materials
Explanation: The aircraft uses lightweight composite materials to reduce weight and improve efficiency.

6. What is the seating capacity of Hansa-3 (NG)?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

✔ Answer: B. 2
Explanation: It has a two-seat arrangement—one instructor and one trainee.

7. Which of the following describes the cockpit of Hansa-3 (NG)?

A. Fully analog
B. Semi-digital
C. Full glass-cockpit
D. No cockpit display

✔ Answer: C. Full glass-cockpit
Explanation: The aircraft features a digital glass-cockpit display for improved situational awareness.

8. Hansa-3 (NG) was certified for pilot training use in which year?

A. 2020
B. 2021
C. 2023
D. 2025

✔ Answer: C. 2023
Explanation: Regulatory authorities approved it for training operations in 2023.

9. What is the average flight endurance of the Hansa-3 (NG)?

A. 1 hour
B. 3 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 10 hours

✔ Answer: C. 7 hours
Explanation: Its long endurance makes it suitable for extended training sorties.

10. Hansa-3 (NG) is mainly built to help India reduce dependence on which of the following?

A. Foreign trainer aircraft
B. Satellite imports
C. Rocket engines
D. Fighter jets

✔ Answer: A. Foreign trainer aircraft
Explanation: It is part of India’s effort to strengthen indigenous aviation training capabilities.

Conclusion

The Hansa-3 (NG) trainer by Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh in Bengaluru marks a significant step in India's aerospace progress. The fully indigenous next-generation aircraft boosts the country's training capacity, reduces reliance on external trainers, and showcases CSIR-NAL's growing expertise in developing modern, affordable aviation technology.